I understand that Wickard v. Filburn permits Congress to prohibit some types of production and distribution activity under the Commerce Clause, but I believe there’s an exception when it comes to firearms. Why? Because the Second Amendment antedates the Commerce Clause. So while the Commerce Clause may have allowed Congress to prohibit the production and distribution of firearms, because the Second Amendment followed it temporally, and because it prevents Congress from “infringing” upon the right to arms, the Second Amendment modifies the Commerce Clause to deny Congress the authority to use the clause to prohibit the manufacture and distribution of firearms.